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Guest
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Posted: Sat Mar 26, 2005 8:01 am
Post subject: can second be drawn ? |
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| player a and b were all in they both had the same number of chips. a 3rd player (c) was in . he had more chips. player c won the hand. both a and b were knocked out. but player a had better hand then b. these were the last 3players left. obviously player c wins. but do a and b tie for 2nd or does player a come 2nd because he had a better hand then b. |
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webmaster
Site Admin
Joined: Nov 26, 2003
Posts: 642
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Posted: Sat Mar 26, 2005 8:20 am
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Interesting question.
The answer is neither of those. Second and third in this situation are determined by which had the greater chipstack at the point of the all in. At tie would occur in the unlikely event that both players had the same chips (very rare). |
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Guest
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Posted: Sat Mar 26, 2005 8:37 am
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They did have the same amount of chips. which is rare. what u wrote is intersting, as previously a similar situation happened. slight dif. say there are 3 player (a)has $5 (B) $5.50 and (C) $10 . blind are $3 / $6 they all go all in. player (C) wins pot . but player (A) had second best hand.
Who comes second. is it player (a) because he had 2nd best hand.
Or player (B) because he had 50cent more then (A) .
from what u wrote i believe u will say player B. i am not to sure. or is it a draw. |
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webmaster
Site Admin
Joined: Nov 26, 2003
Posts: 642
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Posted: Sat Mar 26, 2005 7:05 pm
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| Player B wins because he had the most chips. There is no comparing losing hands after a pot - they are just classed as losers with the places determined by the prehand chips. |
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